Syllabus: General Studies Paper 2

The conflict between Armenia and Azerbaijan over Nagorno-Karabakh has been at the centre of three major wars and multiple clashes for decades.

Nagorno-Karabakh 

• Nagorno-Karabakh is a mountainous and heavily forested region that under international law is recognised as part of Azerbaijan.
• However, ethnic Armenians who constitute the vast majority of the population there reject Azeri rule (the legal system of Azerbaijan).

Nagorno-Karabakh Dispute

• It is a disputed territory internationally recognized as part of Azerbaijan but mostly governed by the Republic of Artsakh, de facto independent state with an Armenian ethnic majority backed by neighbouring Armenia. 
• Modern-day Armenia and Azerbaijan became part of the Soviet Union when it formed in the 1920s. Nagorno-Karabakh was an ethnic-majority Armenian region, but the Soviets gave control over the area to Azerbaijani authorities.
• It was only as the Soviet Union began to collapse in the late 1980s that Nagorno-Karabakh’s regional parliament officially voted to become part of Armenia.
• Azerbaijan sought to suppress the separatist movement, while Armenia backed it. This led to full-scale war. Armenian forces gained control of Nagorno-Karabakh and areas adjacent to it before a Russian-brokered ceasefire was declared in 1994.
• After that deal, Nagorno-Karabakh remained part of Azerbaijan, but since then has mostly been governed by a separatist, self-declared republic run by ethnic Armenians and backed by the Armenian government.

Strategic Significance

• The energy-rich Azerbaijan has built several gas and oil pipelines across the Caucasus (the region between the Black Sea and the Caspian Sea) to Turkey and Europe.
• Some of these pipelines pass close to the conflict zone (within 16 km of the border).
• In an open war between the two countries, the pipelines could be targeted, which would impact energy supplies and may even lead to higher oil prices globally.

Syllabus: General Studies Paper 2

India handed over a Dornier aircraft to Sri Lanka in the presence of President Ranil Wickremesinghe, reaffirming its security ties with the island nation.

• Security of India and Sri Lanka are enhanced by mutual understanding, mutual trust and cooperation.
• The gifting of the Dornier aircraft to the Sri Lanka Air Force “is of relevance to and a step to meet its requirements for maritime safety and security.
• The capability of the aircraft to undertake search and rescue operations “exemplifies its direct benefit to the people.
• The gift to the people of Sri Lanka will equip the country to contribute more towards the security of the Indian Ocean Region at large.
• The Indian gift was in response to a request from the Sri Lankan government in 2018 for two Dornier Reconnaissance Aircraft to enhance the maritime surveillance capabilities of the island nation.
• Sri Lanka is a member of the ‘Colombo Security Conclave’, that began as a trilateral initiate involving India, Sri Lanka and the Maldives, and later included Mauritius, for maritime cooperation in the region.

Dornier 228

• The Dornier 228 is a general aircraft with twin engines capable of carrying at least 19 passengers.
• With its Short-Take off and Landing (STOL) capability, it is capable of operating on short runways as well as in hot environments.
• The Dornier 228 has been marketed as a general-service aircraft capable of operating in many roles such as military transport, couter aircraft or cargo hauler.

It carries our special missions such as:

• Maritime Surveillance
• Border Patrol
• Medical Evacuations
• Search and Rescue
• Paradrops
• Environmental research

It is fitted with special equipment such as 360-degree surveillance radar, searchlights, operator stations, enlarged fuel tanks, satellite uplink etc.

Syllabus: General Studies Paper 3

In a first, an indigenously developed howitzer gun, ATAG, became part of the 21-gun salute during the Independence Day ceremony at the Red Fort.

The ATAGS is an indigenous 155 mm x 52 calibre howitzer gun developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) with its Pune-based facility Armament Research and Development Establishment (ARDE) being the nodal agency.

Development of the ATAGS

• The ATAGS project was started in 2013 by DRDO to replace older guns in service in the Indian Army with a modern 155 mm artillery gun. 
• With ARDE as the nodal laboratory, other DRDO facilities that joined the development efforts are Instruments Research and Development Establishment (IRDE), Vehicle Research and Development Establishment (VRDE), Proof and Experimental Establishment (PXE), Centre for Artificial Intelligence and Robotics (CAIR), and Defence Electronics Applications Laboratory (DEAL). 
• The ARDE has collaborated with Bharat Forge Limited and Tata Advanced Systems Ltd for the manufacturing of this specialised gun system.
• The armament system of ATAGS mainly comprises barrel, breech mechanism, muzzle brake and recoil mechanism to fire 155 mm calibre ammunition held by Army with a longer range, accuracy and precision and provides greater firepower.
• The ATAGS is configured with all electric drive to ensure maintenance free and reliable operation over a longer period of time.
• During its test at Pokhran,The maximum ranges of 38.5 km and 48 km, with boat tail and extended range full bore types of projectiles.
• During the same trials, a minimum range of 4.7 km was achieved from the systems meeting the critical parameter of minimum range at high angle.
• The specialised gun system is compatible with C4I (command, control, communications, computers, and intelligence) systems like the Artillery Combat Command and Control System (ACCCS) called Shakti for technical fire control, fire planning, deployment management, and operational logistics management of the Army.

Syllabus: General Studies Paper 3

The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India tabled a report in Parliament on whether steps taken by the Union Environment Ministry to conserve India’s coastal ecosystems have been successful. The CAG frequently undertakes ‘performance audits’ of government programmes and ministries. This latest report contains the observations from an audit of ‘Conservation of Coastal Ecosystems from 2015-20.

What are the Centre’s obligations on conserving the coastline?

• The government has issued notifications under the Environment Protection Act, 1986, to regulate activities along India’s coasts particularly regarding construction. 
• The Coastal Regulation Zone Notification (CRZ) 2019, implemented by the Ministry, classifies the coastal area into different zones to manage infrastructure activities and regulate them. 
• The three institutions responsible for the implementation of the CRZ are the National Coastal Zone Management Authority (NCZMA) at the Centre, the State/Union Territory Coastal Zone Management Authorities (SCZMAs/UTCZMAs) in every coastal State and Union Territory and the District Level Committees (DLCs) in every district that has a coastal stretch and where the CRZ notification is applicable. 
• These bodies examine if CRZ clearances granted by the government are as per procedure, if project developers once given the go-ahead are complying with conditions and if the project development objectives under the Integrated Coastal Zone Management Programme (ICZMP) are successful. 
• They also evaluate the measures taken up by the government towards achieving the targets under Sustainable Development Goals, a set of United Nations-prescribed targets for countries towards eradicating poverty and becoming sustainable societies.

Why did the CAG undertake this audit?

The CAG has a constitutional mandate to investigate and report on publicly funded programmes. The CAG conducted “pre-audit studies” and found that there were large-scale CRZ violations in the coastal stretches. Incidences of illegal construction activities (reducing coastal space) and effluent discharges from local bodies, industries and aquaculture farms had been reported by the media and this prompted it to undertake a detailed investigation.

What did the audit find?

• The audit pointed out various categories of violations. 
• For one, the Environment Ministry hadn’t notified NCZMA as a permanent body and it was being reconstituted every few years. 
• In the absence of defined membership, it was functioning as an ad-hoc body. 
• There were instances of the Expert Appraisal Committees a committee of scientific experts and senior bureaucrats who evaluate the feasibility of an infrastructure project and its environmental consequences not being present during project deliberations. 
• There were also instances of the members of the EAC being fewer than half of the total strength during the deliberations.
• There were instances of projects being approved despite inadequacies in the Environment Impact Assessment (EIA) reports.
• These included non-accredited consultants preparing the EIA, using outdated data, not evaluating environmental impacts of the project, not appraising the disasters which the project area was prone to and so forth.

What problems did the CAG find in the States?

• Tamil Nadu didn’t have a strategy in place to conserve the Gulf of Mannar Islands. 
• In Goa, there was no system for monitoring coral reefs and no management plans to conserve turtle nesting sites. 
• In Gujarat, instruments procured to study the physiochemical parameters of soil and water of the inertial area of the Gulf of Kutch weren’t used. 
• Sea patrolling in Gahirmatha Sanctuary, in Kendrapara, Odisha did not happen.
• A research laboratory at Dangmal, Kendrapara District, Odisha constructed in 2016 has not yet been made functional. 
• There was no website to disseminate the information related to the NCZMA , the CAG found, which is a clear violation of the mandated requirements of the Authority.

What are CRZ norms?

• In India, the CRZ Rules govern human and industrial activity close to the coastline, in order to protect the fragile ecosystems near the sea.
• They restrict certain kinds of activities — like large constructions, setting up of new industries, storage or disposal of hazardous material, mining, reclamation and bunding — within a certain distance from the coastline.
• Under the section 3 of Environment Protection Act, 1986 of India, Coastal Regulation Zone notification was issued in February 1991 for the first time.
• In 2018-19, fresh Rules were issued, which aimed to remove certain restrictions on building, streamlined the clearance process, and aimed to encourage tourism in coastal areas.
• While the CRZ Rules are made by the Union environment ministry, implementation is to be ensured by state governments through their Coastal Zone Management Authorities.

Categories of Coastal Regulation Zone:

• Category I: Areas that are ecologically sensitive and important, such as national parks marine parks, sanctuaries, reserve forests, wildlife habitats, mangroves, corals/coral reefs, etc.
• Category II: Areas that have already been developed up to or close to the shore-line.
•  Category III: Areas that are relatively undisturbed and those that do not belong to either Category-I or II
• Category IV: Coastlines of Indian islands that do not fall into categories I, II or III

New Rules under CRZ regulations

• The government notified new CRZ Rules with the stated objectives of promoting sustainable development and conserving coastal environments.
• For the so-called CRZ-III (Rural) areas, two separate categories have been stipulated.
• In the densely populated rural areas (CRZ-IIIA) with a population density of 2,161 per sq km as per the 2011 Census, the no-development zone is now 50 m from the high-tide level, as against the 200 m stipulated earlier.
• In the CRZ-IIIB category (rural areas with population density below 2,161 per sq km) continue to have a no-development zone extending up to 200 m from the high-tide line.
• The new Rules have a no-development zone of 20 m for all islands close to the mainland coast, and for all backwater islands in the mainland.

Syllabus: General Studies Paper 3

A study using 12 years of data from NASA’s Fermi telescope helped scientists understand PeVatrons, or the source of a kind of extremely high-energy cosmic particles.

• NASA’s Fermi Gamma-ray Space Telescope, scientists are finally getting close to accurately identifying PeVatrons, the source of some of the highest energy particles that whip across our galaxy.
• Streams of particles called cosmic rays travel at breakneck speeds around our galaxy and they also strike our planet’s atmosphere. 
• They typically consist of protons but sometimes also include atomic nuclei and electrons. 
• They all carry an electric charge, this means that their paths deviate and scramble as they go through our galaxy’s magnetic field.
• This means that we can no longer tell which direction they originally came from, effectively masking their birthplace. 
• But when the particles that are part of cosmic rays collide with the gas near supernova remnants, they produce gamma rays; some of the highest-energy forms of radiation that exist.
• “Theorists think the highest-energy cosmic ray protons in the Milky Way reach a million billion electron volts, or PeV energies. The precise nature of their sources, which we call PeVatrons, has been difficult to pin down,” 
• These particles get trapped by the chaotic magnetic fields near supernova remnants. 
• They pass through the supernova’s shock wave multiple times and each time they do, they gain speed and energy. 
• Eventually, they can no longer be held by the supernova remnant and will careen off into deep space.
• These particles are boosted to 10 times the energy that the Large Hadron Collider, the most powerful man-made particle accelerator, can generate.

Syllabus: General Studies Paper 3

India adds 11 more wetlands to the list of Ramsar sites to make total 75 Ramsar sites covering an area of 13,26,677 ha in the country in the 75th year of Independence.  

The 11 new sites include:  

• Four (4) sites in Tamil Nadu
• Three (3) in Odisha 
• Two (2) in Jammu & Kashmir 
• One (1) each in Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra. 

Designation of these sites would help in conservation and management of wetlands and wise use of their resources.  

• India is one of the Contracting Parties to Ramsar Convention, signed in Ramsar, Iran, in 1971. India signed it on 1st Feb 1982. During 1982 to 2013, a total of 26 sites were added to the list of Ramsar sites, however, during 2014 to 2022, the country has added 49 new wetlands to the list of Ramsar sites.
• During this year itself (2022) a total of 28 sites have been declared as Ramsar sites. Based on the date of designation mentioned on Ramsar Certificate, the number is 19 for this year (2022) and 14 for previous year (2021). 
• Tamil Nadu has maximum no. of Ramsar sites (14 nos), followed by UP which has 10 nos. of Ramsar sites.  

Brief of 11 wetlands designated as Ramsar Sites

Syllabus: General Studies Paper 1

On August 17, 1947, two days after Independence, the award of the Boundary Commissions for the partition of Punjab and Bengal was announced.

• The award caused much anguish to the people of the two provinces and also to the governments of India and Pakistan. 
• Documents accessed from National Archives of India reveal that the then Law minister of India, B R Ambedkar, and Minister of Industry and Supply, Syama Prasad Mukherjee, proposed to take the matter of the Chittagong Hill Tracts to the UN (the UNO).

What were the two Boundary Commissions?

• In June 1947, Sir Cyril John Radcliffe, a British lawyer, was made the Chairman of two boundary commissions of Punjab and Bengal and given the task to draw up the new borders of India and Pakistan. 
• He was given a period of five weeks to complete this task and arrived in India in July 1947. 
• The boundary commissions of Punjab and Bengal also included two nominees each of the Indian National Congress and Muslim League respectively. 
• The Punjab commission had Justice Mehr Chand Mahajan, Justice Teja Singh, Justice Din Mohammad and Justice Muhammad Munir as members. 
• The Bengal commission comprised Justice CC Biswas, Justice BK Mukherjee, Justice Abu Saleh Akram and Justice SA Rehman. The Boundary Commissions award was made public on August 17, 1947.

What discussion took place with regard to the awards?

Bengal

• The minutes of the meeting show that Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru protested against the award of Chittagong hill Tracts to Pakistan (East Pakistan, now Bangladesh). 
• He said that he had never considered that the allocation of Chittagong Hill Tracts to East Bengal was possible under the terms of reference of the boundary commission. 
• Lord Mountbatten defended the award saying that the Chittagong district had close economic ties with the hill tracts and that the port required proper supervision of the Karnaphuli river which runs through the hill tracts. He made a suggestion of compromise by re-adjustment of territory which was rejected by Nehru and the Liaquat Ali Khan.

Punjab

• Nehru said that he considered that the award of boundary commission in the Punjab was likely to have a bad effect among the Sikhs, who presented a particularly difficult problem. 
• Sardar Baldev Singh said that the reaction to the award would be very unfavourable on the Sikh mind. 
• Liaquat Ali Khan said it would have a similar unfavourable reaction among the Muslims. 
• He emphasised that complete religious freedom will be allowed,” the minutes note.
• Sardar Patel’s view was that the only solution to the Punjab award was a transfer of population on a large scale.
• Mountbatten said that he had spoken to Jinnah about Nankana Sahib.
• “Mr Jinnah had stated that he had it in mind to give the Sikhs any religious assurances that were required in connection with their Gurdwara there. 
• The Governor General suggested that a specific statement on Nankana Sahib might be made by the Pakistan government at the same time as the issue of the boundary commission award.

On Bengal award, what was BR Ambedkar and SP Mukherjee’s note?

• The joint note of the two ministers pointed out that the decision of the award in some vital respects is “unjust and unfair” and against the fundamental policy of the partition and also the terms of reference. 
• A copy of this note was circulated by the Cabinet Secretariat on August 25 to a special committee formed for the legal and other implications on boundary award and which included Home Minister, Food and Agriculture Minister and Defence Minister apart from these two ministers.
• The note points out that Cyril Radcliffe was the Chairman of the boundary commissions and that it also consisted of other judges and was not solely composed of Radcliffe. 
• The note also pointed out that Radcliffe and not given any reasons to support the award which he gave. 
• “Nowhere has he set out the principles on which he has based his decisions. 
• It can therefore be urged that the decision by Sir Cyril Radcliffe without reference to principles by which he was guided can be treated as a nullity. 
• This is no mere formal objection. It goes to the root of the matter,” the note says.
• Both ministers would in conclusion that the award in Bengal was unjust and arbitrary and will be a source of bitterness and strife now and in future. 
• We therefore lodge our protest against the award and cannot accept it as final and conclusive. 
• We propose to take up the matter with the Pakistan Dominion immediately. 
• We shall make an attempt to open negotiations with that government and see if any amicable re-settlement is possible. 
• If not, we reserve to ourselves the right to treat this as an inter dominion dispute and refer it to the UNO , claiming the inclusion of the areas outlined above into West Bengal.

Syllabus: General Studies Paper 2

The Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment (MoSJ&E) is now preparing to undertake a nationwide survey to enumerate all people engaged in hazardous cleaning of sewers and septic tanks, an activity that has led to at least 351 deaths since 2017.

• Drawing a distinction between this work and manual scavenging, the Ministry insisted that the practice of manual scavenging no longer takes place in the country as all manual scavengers had been accounted for and enrolled into the rehabilitation scheme.
• Ministry officials said that the enumeration exercise, soon to be conducted across 500 AMRUT (Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation) cities, is part of the Union government’s National Action Plan for Mechanised Sanitation Ecosystem (NAMASTE), which will streamline the process of rehabilitating sanitation workers and eventually merge with and replace the Self-Employment Scheme for the Rehabilitation of Manual Scavengers (SRMS), which was started in 2007.

National Action Plan for Mechanised Sanitation Ecosystem (NAMASTE)

• The NAMASTE scheme is being undertaken jointly by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs and the MoSJ&E and aims to eradicate unsafe sewer and septic tank cleaning practices.
• Parts of this project, already in the works for the past two years, have led to municipal commissioners being declared as the Responsible Sanitation Authorities (RSAs)  
• Sanitation Response Units (SRUs) being set up in 200 cities, where the national helpline for addressing sanitation needs (14420) has also been operationalised.

The project aims to achieve the following outcomes:

• Zero fatalities in sanitation work in India.
• All sanitation work to be performed by skilled workers.
• No sanitation workers should come in direct contact with human faecal matter.
• Sanitation workers are to be collectivized into SHGs and are empowered to run sanitation enterprises.
• All Sewer and Septic tank sanitation workers (SSWs) have access to alternative livelihoods.
• Strengthened supervisory and monitoring systems at national, state and ULB levels to ensure enforcement and monitoring of safe sanitation work.
• Increased awareness amongst sanitation services seekers (individuals and institutions) to seek services from registered and skilled sanitation workers.

Swachhta Udyami Yojana

• The Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment launched the Swachhta Udyami Yojana (SUY) on 02nd October 2014.
• This Scheme has twin objective of cleanliness and providing livelihood to Safai Karamcharis and liberated Manual Scavengers to achieve the overall goal of “Swachh Bharat Abhiyan”
• The Swachhta Udyami Yojana extends financial assistance for Construction, Operation and Maintenance of Pay and Use Community Toilets in Public Private Partnership (PPP) Mode and Procurement and Operation of Sanitation related Vehicles.
• The scheme also provides for training the workers in the use of these machines, during which time a stipend of up to ₹3,000 per month will be provided.
• The scheme will also provide for sanitation workers to train for and go into any of the approved list of alternative occupations in sectors like agriculture, services, electronics assembling, handicrafts and so on.

Syllabus: General Studies Paper 3

India experienced severe working-hour and employment losses in 2020 and 2021, and Indian youth employment deteriorated in 2021 compared to 2020, according to the Global Employment Trends for Youth 2022 report released by the International Labour Organisation.

Key Findings

• The pandemic has worsened the numerous labour market challenges facing those aged between 15 and 24 years. 
• Youngsters in this age group experienced a much higher percentage loss in employment than adults since early 2020.
• The total global number of unemployed youth is estimated to reach 73 million in 2022, a slight improvement from 2021 (75 million), but still six million above the pre-pandemic level of 2019,”

Finding in India

• In India, the report said surveys conducted by the Centre for Monitoring the Indian Economy show that the youth employment participation rate declined by 0.9 percentage points over the first nine months of 2021 relative to its value in 2020, 
• It increased by 2 percentage points for adults over the same time period. 
• The situation is particularly severe for very young people aged 15-20 years.
• The unemployment rate of young people in the Asia and Pacific region is projected to reach 14.9% in 2022,  
• Quality education and training opportunities are required to create decent jobs, especially in green, blue and digital economies.
• In India, the report added that school closures lasted 18 months and among the 24 crore school-going children, only 8% of such children in rural areas and 23% in urban areas had adequate access to online education. 
• Given the deeply unequal access to online resources in developing countries, children from socio-economically disadvantaged families, which are the large majority, had almost no access to education.
• School closures not only prevented new learning, but also led to the phenomenon of “learning regression”, that is, children forgetting what they had learned earlier.
• In India, 92% of children on average lost at least one foundational ability in language and 82% lost at least one foundational ability in mathematics.
• The report appreciated the MGNREGA and said it has played an important role in providing paid employment, particularly for women, but also in carbon sequestration because of the Act’s focus on natural resources, such as land, water and trees, which provide adaptation benefits.
• India has a very low youth female labour market participation and Indian young women experienced larger relative employment losses than young men in 2021 and 2022.
• In general, the high youth employment losses in India drive up the global average employment losses.
• Young Indian men account for 16% of young men in the global labour market, while the corresponding share for young Indian women is just 5%.

It highlighted Quality education and training opportunities are required to create decent jobs, especially in green, blue and digital economies, and to set economies on the path towards greater sustainability, inclusiveness and resilience.