July 16, 2024

Indian Polity Quiz: Day 99

As per the 73rd Amendment Act of 1992, the state legislature may:
1. Authorise a panchayat to levy, collect and appropriate taxes, duties, tolls and fees.
2. Assign to a panchayat taxes, duties, tolls and fees levied and collected by the state government.
3. Provide for making grants-in-aid to the panchayats from the consolidated fund of the state.
4. Provide for constitution of funds for crediting all moneys of the panchayats.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • (A) 1, 2 and 3 only
  • (B) 2, 3 and 4 only
  • (C) 3 and 4 only
  • (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Which of the following are covered in 11th Schedule of the Indian Constitution?
1. Agriculture.
2. Major forest produce
3. Micro and Small Enterprises
4. Drinking water
Select the correct answer using the options given below:
  • (A) 1, 2 and 3 only
  • (B) 1 and 4 only
  • (C) 2, 3 and 4 only
  • (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Which of the following is/are the compulsory provisions of the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act (1992) or the Part IX of the Constitution?
1. Organization of Gram Sabha in a village or group of villages.
2. Indirect elections to the post of chairperson of panchayats at the intermediate and district levels.
3. Providing reservation of seats (both members and chairpersons) for backward classes in panchayats at any level.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • (A) 1 and 2 only
  • (B) 2 and 3 only
  • (C) 1 and 3only
  • (D) 1, 2 and 3
Which of the following are the objectives of the PESA Act of 1996?
1. To extend the provisions of Part IX of the Constitution relating to the panchayats to the tribal areas under schedule six with certain modifications.
2. To have village governance with participatory democracy and to make the gram sabha a nucleus of all activities.
3. To prevent panchayats at the higher level from assuming the powers and authority of panchayats at the lower level of the gram sabha.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
  • (A) 1 and 2 only
  • (B) 2 and 3 only
  • (C) 1 and 3 only
  • (D) 1, 2 and 3
With reference to Cantonment Board, consider the following statements:
1. It was set up under the provisions of the Cantonments Act of 2004.
2. It works under the administrative control of the home ministry of the Central government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • (A) 1 only
  • (B) 2 only
  • (C) Both 1 and 2
  • (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Consider the following statements about Emergency provisions provided in the Indian Constitution:
1. Part XVII contains provisions regarding Emergency provisions in India.
2. Articles 352 to 361 provides for emergency to enable the Central government to meet any abnormal situation effectively.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • (A) 1 only
  • (B) 2 only
  • (C) Both 1 and 2
  • (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Consider the following statements:
1. As per the constitution, Hindi written in Devanagari script is to be the official language of the Union.
2. The Constitution does not specify the official language of different states.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • (A) 1 only
  • (B) 2 only
  • (C) Both 1 and 2
  • (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with the official language?
  • (A) Part XVII
  • (B) Part XX
  • (C) Part XVI
  • (D) Part XVIII
With respect to Tribunals, consider the following statements:
1. The original Constitution did not contain provisions with respect to tribunals.
2. Part XIV-A to the Constitution consists of only two Articles—Article 323 A dealing with tribunals for other matters and Article 323 B dealing with administrative tribunals
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • (A) 1 only
  • (B) 2 only
  • (C) Both 1 and 2
  • (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with Union Territories?
  • (A) Part VI
  • (B) Part VII
  • (C) Part VIII
  • (D) Part IX
Which of the following Amendments provided a special status to the Union Territory of Delhi?
  • (A) 69th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1991
  • (B) 38th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1975
  • (C) 26th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1971
  • (D) None of the above
Which of the following articles of the Indian Constitution envisages a special system of administration for certain areas designated as ‘scheduled areas’ and ‘tribal areas’?
  • (A) Article 241
  • (B) Article 242
  • (C) Article 243
  • (D) Article 244
As per the Fifth Schedule who among the following is empowered to declare an area to be a scheduled area?
  • (A) Governor of the concerned state
  • (B) Union Home Minister
  • (C) President of India
  • (D) Prime Minister of India
With respect to Tribal Advisory Council, consider the following statements:
1. Each state having scheduled areas has to establish a tribes advisory council to advise on welfare and advancement of the scheduled tribes.
2. It is to consist of 30 members, three-fourths of whom are to be the representatives of the scheduled tribes in the state legislative assembly.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • (A) 1 only
  • (B) 2 only
  • (C) Both 1 and 2
  • (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Consider the following statements with respect to the Representation of People Act (1951):
1. If a person is elected to both the Houses of Parliament, he must intimate within 10 days in which House he desires to serve. In default of such intimation, his seat in the Lok Sabha becomes vacant.
2. If a person is elected to two seats in a House, he should exercise his option for one. Otherwise, both seats become vacant.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • (A) 1 only
  • (B) 2 only
  • (C) Both 1 and 2
  • (D) Neither 1 nor 2

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