June 12, 2024

Indian Polity Quiz: Day 22

Which of the following was not a part of the original Constitution in 1949?
  • (A) To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor
  • (B) Secure for all citizens a uniform civil code throughout the country
  • (C) Make provision for just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief
  • (D) Organize agriculture and animal husbandry on modern and scientific lines.
In the context of Indian polity, which one of the following would you accept as the most appropriate definition of liberty?
  • (A) Protection against the tyranny of political rulers
  • (B) Absence of restraint
  • (C) Opportunity to do whatever one likes
  • (D) Opportunity to develop oneself fully
Consider the following statements:
1. A private body merely working as an instrument of the State does not come within the meaning of the ‘State’ under Article 12.
2. The protection from human trafficking under Article 23 is availed against both state and private person.
3. Only parliament has the power to make a law to make fundamental rights enforceable.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
  • (A) 1 and 2 only
  • (B) 2 and 3 only
  • (C) 1 and 3 only
  • (D) All of the above
Which of the following are reasonable restrictions on the freedom of expression under Article 19?
1. Contempt of court
2. Decency and Morality
3. Sedition
4. Friendly relations with foreign state
5. Incitement to an offence
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  • (A) 1, 4 and 5 only
  • (B) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
  • (C) 2, 3 and 4 only
  • (D) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Consider the following statements regarding the rights of the citizens under the Constitution of India:
1. Rights indicate activities that states must refrain from doing.
2. Fulfillment of rights depends on fulfilment of duties.
3. Rights are entitled claims of citizens on the state.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • (A) 1 only
  • (B) 2 and 3 only
  • (C) 1 and 3 only
  • (D) All of the above
The First General Elections of independent India in 1952 involved simultaneous elections of which of the following offices/institutions?
1. Lok Sabha
2. The President of India
3. State Assemblies
4. Rajya Sabha
5. Vice President
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
  • (A) 1, 2 and 3 only
  • (B) 2, 4 and 5 only
  • (C) 1 and 3 only
  • (D) 1 and 5 only
Which of the following statement is correct?
  • (A) The Department of Revenue is responsible for the preparation of Union Budget that is presented to the Parliament.
  • (B) Consolidated Fund of India is mentioned under Article 266 of Indian Constitution.
  • (C) All the disbursements made from Public Account also need the authorization from the Parliament of India.
  • (D) None of the above
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding a No-Confidence Motion in India:
1. There is no mention of a No-Confidence Motion in the Constitution of India.
2. A motion of No-Confidence can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only.
Code:
  • (A) 1 only
  • (B) 2 only
  • (C) Both 1 and 2
  • (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Which of the following statement is correct?
  • (A) The President is not obliged to accept the reconsidered advice of the Council of Ministers.
  • (B) In case when no party has a clear majority in the Lok Sabha, then the President must appoint the leader of party with maximum seats as the Prime Minister.
  • (C) The impeachment charges against president can be initiated by Lok Sabha only.
  • (D) None of the above
Which of the following statements with reference to the Panchayati Raj Institutions is incorrect?
  • (A) The Constitution has made a 3-tier structure mandatory for Panchayati Raj Institutions all over the country.
  • (B) If a Panchayat is dissolved before completing its term, a re-elected Panchayat only continues for the remainder of the original term.
  • (C) Gram Sabha is a permanent body defined under the constitution.
  • (D) None of the above
Consider the following statements regarding veto power of the President of India:
1. She has no veto power with respect to Constitutional Amendment Bills.
2. She enjoys pocket veto with respect to state legislations.
3. She does not have the power to exercise qualified veto.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
  • (A) 1 and 2 only
  • (B) 2 and 3 only
  • (C) 1 and 3 only
  • (D) 1, 2 and 3
Who among the following has the authority to fix the borrowing limit upon the security of the Consolidated Fund of India by the union government?
  • (A) The President
  • (B) Finance Secretary
  • (C) Parliament
  • (D) The Chairman of Rajya Sabha
With respect to the Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005, consider the following statements:
1. The RTI Act mandates a timely response within 30 days to citizen requests for government information
2. A person, who wants to receive any information under the RTI Act, can make a request in writing only in English or Hindi.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • (A) 1 only
  • (B) 2 only
  • (C) Both 1 and 2
  • (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Consider the following statements with regards to the Inter-State Council:
1. The Council has the duty of inquiring into and advising upon disputes which may have arisen between States.
2. Parliament by law define the nature of the duties to be performed by the Inter- State Council.
3. The recommendations of the council are only advisory in nature and are not binding on the parties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • (A) 1 only
  • (B) 2 and 3 only
  • (C) 1 and 3 only
  • (D) 2 only
With reference to the basic structure doctrine, which of the following statements is not correct?
  • (A) According to the doctrine, the Parliament can extend the scope of a fundamental right but cannot curtail it.
  • (B) Through the Waman Rao judgment, the Supreme Court held that the doctrine would apply only to constitutional amendments enacted after 24th April 1973.
  • (C) The doctrine is nowhere mentioned in the constitution.
  • (D) The idea of a welfare state is part of the basic structure.
With reference to the ‘revised’ draft Data Protection bill, consider the following statements:
1. Companies dealing in personal data of consumers that fail to take reasonable safeguards to prevent data breaches could end up facing penalties as high as around Rs 200 crore.
2. Companies failing to notify people impacted by a data breach could be fined around Rs 100 crore.
3. Companies failing to safeguard children’s personal data could be fined close to Rs 150 crore.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
  • (A) 1 only
  • (B) 2 and 3 only
  • (C) 1, 2 and 3
  • (D) None of the above
With reference to the ‘Armed Forces Tribunal (AFT)’, recently seen in the news, consider the following statements:
1. Armed Forces Tribunal Act 2007, was passed by the Parliament and led to the formation of AFT.
2. Currently AFT operates with only one bench in New Delhi.
3. Administrative Members are retired Members of the Armed Forces who have held the rank of Major General/ equivalent or above for a period of three years or more.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • (A) 1 only
  • (B) 2 only
  • (C) 3 only
  • (D) 1 and 3 only
Consider the following statements
1. Aadhaar card can be used as a proof of citizenship or domicile.
2. Once issued, Aadhaar number cannot be deactivated or omitted by the Issuing Authority.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • (A) 1 only
  • (B) 2 only
  • (C) Both 1 and 2
  • (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Which of the following Constitution Amendment Acts was not ratified by fifty percent of the state legislatures?
  • (A) 97th Constitution Amendment Act
  • (B) 7th Constitution Amendment Act
  • (C) 101st Constitution Amendment Act
  • (D) 61st Constitution Amendment Act
Consider the following statements regarding significance of Fundamental Duties:
1. They help the courts in examining and determining the constitutional validity of a law.
2. They serve as a warning against the anti-national and antisocial activities in public sphere.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect ?
  • (A) 1 only
  • (B) 2 only
  • (C) Both 1 and 2
  • (D) None of the above

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