🚀

CivilStap Himachal
Has Moved

Experience our brand-new learning platform with a faster dashboard, better performance, live classes, current affairs, test series, and many more exciting features.

Visit New Website →
Automatically redirecting in 5 seconds...
July 27, 2026

Indian Polity Quiz: Day 111

March 12, 2023
Consider the following statements:
1. The Indian Constitution was never subjected to the referendum.
2. Constituent assembly acted as a provisional parliament till 1952.
Which of the following statements are correct?
  • (A) 1 only
  • (B) 2 only
  • (C) Both 1 and 2
  • (D) None of the above
Show Answer

Answer: (c)

  • Statement 1 is correct. The Indian Constitution was not subjected to a referendum. It was adopted by the Constituent Assembly elected for the purpose.
  • Statement 2 is correct. The Constituent Assembly became the Provisional Parliament of India (continuing until after the first elections under the new constitution in 1952).
Consider the following statements:
1. The Jawaharlal Nehru committee had demanded a bill of rights in 1928.
2. National Human Right was given a statutory basis by the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1992.
Which of the following statements are correct?
  • (A) 1 only
  • (B) 2 only
  • (C) Both 1 and 2
  • (D) None of the above
Show Answer

Answer: D

  • The Nehru Report, which was prepared by the committee headed by Motilal Nehru and was presented to the British government in 1928, demanded a Bill of Rights to be included in the future Constitution of India. The report recommended that the Bill of Rights should guarantee certain fundamental rights to Indian citizens, including the right to freedom of speech and expression, the right to assembly and association, the right to equal protection under the law, and the right to religious freedom.
  • National Human Right was given a statutory basis by the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993
Consider the following Acts:
1. Maintenance of Internal Security Act (MISA), 1971
2. National Security Act (NASA), 1980
3. Terrorist and Disruptive Activities (Prevention) Act (TADA), 1985
4. Prevention of Terrorism Act (POTA), 2002
The above-mentioned acts comes under the ambit of which Article?
  • (A) Article 22
  • (B) Article 21
  • (C) Article 20
  • (D) Article 19
Show Answer

Answer: (a)

  • Article 22 of the Constitution of India provides for the protection of personal liberty and safeguards against arbitrary arrest and detention. It lays down certain rights for a person who is arrested or detained, including the right to be informed of the grounds of arrest, the right to consult and be defended by a lawyer of their choice, and the right to be produced before a magistrate within 24 hours of arrest.
  • The Maintenance of Internal Security Act (MISA), 1971, the National Security Act (NASA), 1980, the Terrorist and Disruptive Activities (Prevention) Act (TADA), 1985, and the Prevention of Terrorism Act (POTA), 2002, are all acts that provide for preventive detention of individuals who are considered a threat to national security. These acts come under the ambit of Article 22, as they restrict the personal liberty of individuals and provide for preventive detention without trial.
Consider the following statements:
1. The Fifth Schedule contains the provisions relating to the administration of tribal areas in the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
2. The Ninth Schedule was added by the 1st Amendment (1951) to protect the laws included in it from judicial scrutiny on the ground of violation of fundamental Rights.
3. The Eighth Schedule contains originally 12 languages.
Which of the following statements are correct?
  • (A) 1 & 2 only
  • (B) 2 only
  • (C) 1 & 3 only
  • (D) 1, 2 and 3
Show Answer

Answer: B

  • The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India contains provisions for the administration of schedule areas other than States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.
  • The Ninth Schedule was added by the 1st Amendment (1951) to protect the laws included in it from judicial scrutiny on the ground of violation of fundamental rights.
  • The Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India originally contained 14 languages, but now has 22 languages listed in it.
The provision of Joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament is Borrowed from which of the following Country?
  • (A) USA
  • (B) Canada
  • (C) Australia
  • (D) Japan
Show Answer

Answer: C

Consider the following statements:
1. The 35th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1975 made Sikkim a full-fledged state of the Indian Union.
2. The Article 371-G specifies the following provisions for Mizoram.
3. Article 371-I provides that Goa Legislative Assembly is to consist of not less than 30 members.
4. The Article 371-E contains the special provision for Karnataka.
Which of the following statements are correct?
  • (A) 1 & 2 only
  • (B) 2 & 3 only
  • (C) 1 & 4 only
  • (D) 2, 3 & 4 only
Show Answer

Answer: (b)

  • Under Article 371-J, the President is empowered to provide that the Governor of Karnataka would have special responsibility for: The establishment of a separate development board for Hyderabad-Karnataka region
  • The 36th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1975 made Sikkim a full-fledged state of the Indian Union.
  • Articles 371-D and 371-E contain the special provisions for Andhra Pradesh.
Which of the following Amendment Act has provided for reservation in employment in government jobs for SCs and STs?
  • (A) Seventy-Second Amendment Act, 1992
  • (B) Seventy- Fifth Amendment Act, 1994
  • (C) Seventy-Seventh Amendment Act, 1995
  • (D) Eighty-Third Amendment Act, 2000
Show Answer

Answer: (c)

Consider the following statements on CAG:
1. Comptroller and Auditor General Duties and Powers is mentioned under article 148.
2. The salary and other Conditions are prescribed by Parliament.
3. He is not entitled to pension.
4. The Administrative expenses are charged on Consolidated Fund.
Which of the following is/are Correct?
  • (A) 1 & 3 only
  • (B) 2 & 4 only
  • (C) 1, 2, 3 only
  • (D) 2,3,4 only
Show Answer

Answer: B

  • Statement 1 is incorrect. The duties and powers of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India are mentioned in Article 149 of the Constitution of India.
  • Statement 2 is correct. The salary and other conditions of service of the Comptroller and Auditor-General shall be such as may be determined by Parliament by law and, until they are so determined, shall be as specified in the Second Schedule(Article 148)
  • Statement 3 is incorrect. The CAG is entitled to a pension, like other government servants.
  • Statement 4 is correct. The administrative expenses of the office of the CAG are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India, which is an important feature of the independence of the CAG
Consider the following Statements
1. The first Backward Classes Commission was appointed in 1953 under the chairmanship of Kaka Kalekar.
2. The first Backward Classes Commission submitted its report in 1955.
3. According to BP Mandal Commission OBCs constitute nearly 52% component of population, excluding the SCs and STs.
Which of the following is the Correct?
  • (A) 1 only
  • (B) 2 only
  • (C) 3 only
  • (D) 1, 2 and 3
Show Answer

Answer: (d)

  • Statement 1 is correct. The first Backward Classes Commission (also known as the Kaka Kalelkar Commission) was appointed in 1953 by the President of India.
  • Statement 2 is correct. The first Backward Classes Commission submitted its report in 1955, which was titled “Report of the Backward Classes Commission (1955-56)”. The report provided a comprehensive definition of the term “backward classes” and recommended the provision of reservation in government jobs and educational institutions for them.
  • Statement 3 is correct. According to the report of the Mandal Commission (also known as the Second Backward Classes Commission), which was appointed in 1979 and submitted its report in 1980, the Other Backward Classes (OBCs) constitute around 52% of the Indian population, excluding the Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs). The Mandal Commission’s report led to the implementation of reservations for OBCs in government jobs and educational institutions.
Under which type of Closure Motion, only important clauses are taken up for debate and voting and the intervening clauses are skipped over and taken as passed?
  • (A) Closure by Compartments
  • (B) Kangaroo Closure
  • (C) Guillotine Closure
  • (D) None of the above.
Show Answer

Answer: (b)

Consider the following statements about the Public Account Committee:
1. The committee was set up first in 1921.
2. It consist of 30 members from Loksabha and Rajya Sabha.
3. Only ministers can be elected as a member of this high-powered committee.
4. Since 1967 a convention has developed whereby the chairman of the committee is selected invariably from the opposition.
Which of the following is incorrect?
  • (A) 1,2 & 3 only
  • (B) 2, 3 & 4 only
  • (C) 2 & 3 only
  • (D) 3 & 4 only
Show Answer

Answer: C

With reference to Committees of the Constituent assembly, Consider the following pairs:
Major Committees Chairman
1. Ad hoc Committee on the National flag Sardar Patel
2. Committee on the Functions of the Constituent Assembly - J.B. Kriplani
3. Steering Committee - Rajendra Prasad
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • (A) None of the pairs
  • (B) Only one pair
  • (C) Only two pairs
  • (D) All the three pairs
Show Answer

Answer: B

Which of the following Article mentions the Power, authority and Responsibilities of Panchayats?
  • (A) 243-E
  • (B) 243-F
  • (C) 243-G
  • (D) None of the Above
Show Answer

Answer: C

  • According to Article 243G of the Constitution, State Legislatures may by law endow Panchayats with such powers and authority as may be necessary to enable them to function as institutions of self-government.
Consider the following statements about the Supreme Court of India:
1. A judge of the Supreme Court can be removed from his office only by an order of the President.
2. No person who has held office as a Judge of the Supreme Court shall plead or act in any court or before any authority within the territory of India.
3. It decides all the disputes regarding the election of the President or the Vice-President.
Choose the Correct of the following.
  • (A) 1 only
  • (B) 2 only
  • (C) 1 & 3 only
  • (D) 2 & 3 only
Show Answer

Answer: D

Consider the incorrect statement about the Comptroller and Auditor General of India.
  • (A) He holds office of six years or up to the age of 65 year, whichever is earlier.
  • (B) He acts as a guide, friend and Philosopher of the Public Accounts Committee of the Parliament.
  • (C) The Parliament has enacted the CAG’s (Duties, Power and Conditions of Service) act, 1972
  • (D) The CAG submits three audit reports to the President.
Show Answer

Answer: (c)

  • The powers of the CAG, regarding audits, are provided for in the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (Duties, Powers and Conditions of Service) Act, 1971

© 2026 Civilstap Himachal Design & Development