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July 28, 2026

Daily Current Affairs Quiz: June 19, 2025

June 19, 2025
With reference to World Sickle Cell Awareness Day, consider the following statements:
1. It is observed annually on 19 June since 2008 to promote awareness about malaria prevention.
2. Sickle Cell Disease is a hereditary disorder caused by a mutation in the Îą-globin gene.
3. Sub-Saharan Africa and India have some of the highest prevalence of SCD globally.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • (A) 1 and 2 only
  • (B) 3 only
  • (C) 1 and 3 only
  • (D) 2 and 3 only
Show Answer

Answer: (b)

Observed annually on 19 June, since 2008.

  • Aim : Raise global awareness of Sickle Cell Disease (SCD) and its physical, social, and economic burdens on patients and families.

About Disease :

  • Sickle Cell Disease (SCD) is a hereditary blood disorder caused by a mutation in the β‑globin gene, leading to sickle‑shaped red blood cells, chronic anaemia, pain crises, and organ damage.
  • WHO estimates 20–25 million people live with SCD worldwide, with highest prevalence in sub‑Saharan Africa, India, Middle East, and Mediterranean.
The International Day Against Unilateral Coercive Measures will be observed annually on:
  • (A) 15 October
  • (B) 1 March
  • (C) 4 December
  • (D) 26 June
Show Answer

Answer: (c)

Current Context : The United Nations General Assembly adopted Resolution A/79/L.93, proclaiming 4  December each year, starting in 2025, as the International Day Against Unilateral Coercive Measures.

  • Proclamation & Vote : Resolution passed with 116 votes in favour, 51 against, and 6
  • Objective : To raise awareness of humanitarian and developmental impacts of unilateral economic, financial, and trade sanctions that contravene international law and the UN
  • Legal Basis : Aligns with Article 41 of the UN Charter, which reserves economic measures to those multilaterally authorized by the Security Council.
Consider the following statements about the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT):
1. It permits all states to develop nuclear weapons for deterrence.
2. Non-signatory states to the treaty include India, Pakistan, and Israel.
3. The treaty provides for the peaceful use of nuclear energy under IAEA safeguards.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • (A) 1 and 2 only
  • (B) 2 and 3 only
  • (C) 1 and 3 only
  • (D) 1, 2 and 3
Show Answer

Answer: (b)

Current Context : Iran’s parliament began drafting legislation that could see it withdraw from the Nuclear NonProliferation Treaty (NPT), following a critical International Atomic Energy Agency report and Israeli strikes on its nuclear facilities.

 

About NonProliferation Treaty (NPT)

  • Entry into Force: 1970, under United Nations auspices, to curb spread of nuclear weapons.

 

Key Obligations:

  • NonNuclearWeapon States: No acquisition or development of nuclear arsenals.
  • NuclearWeapon States: Gradual disarmament and no transfer of weapons or technology.
  • All Parties: Right to peaceful nuclear energy under IAEA safeguards.
  • Membership: 191 States Parties; nonsignatories include India, Pakistan, Israel; North Korea withdrew in 2003.
  • Enforcement: IAEA monitors compliance; UN Security Council can impose sanctions for violations.
Rupee Interest Rate Derivatives are financial contracts based on:
  • (A) Gold prices
  • (B) Rupee-denominated interest rates
  • (C) Foreign exchange reserves
  • (D) Fiscal deficit targets
Show Answer

Answer: (b)

Current Context : The Reserve Bank of India released draft Master Directions on Rupee Interest Rate Derivatives, updating guidelines last revised in 2019 to align with market evolution and enhance non‑resident participation.

 

ABOUT INTEREST RATE DERIVATIVES

  • Definition: Financial contracts whose value is derived from underlying rupee‑denominated interest rates or indices.
  • Common Instruments:
    • Swaps: Exchange fixed and floating rate cash flows.
    • Futures: Standardised contracts to buy/sell debt instruments at a future date.
    • Options (Caps/Floors/Collars): Rights to cap or floor interest payments within agreed bands.
  • Key Draft Provisions:
    • Non‑Resident Access: Permits non‑residents to trade via their central treasuries or group entities with proper authorisation.
    • Reporting & Authorisation: Mandates trade reporting, user authorisations, and risk‑management safeguards.
With reference to MGNREGS Spending Cap for FY 2025–26, consider the following statements:
1. A 60% cap on spending in the first half was introduced to prevent budget overruns.
2. MGNREGS guarantees 200 days of wage employment annually to each rural household.
3. More than ₹24,000 crore was released by June 2025, constituting 28% of the total budget.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • (A) 1 and 2 only
  • (B) 2 and 3 only
  • (C) 1 and 3 only
  • (D) 1, 2 and 3
Show Answer

Answer: (c)

Current Context : For the first half of Financial Year 2025–26, the Ministry of Finance has imposed a 60 percent spending cap on the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme to manage persistent budget overruns and pending wage dues.

About MGNREGS Spending Cap

  • Scheme Background
    • Established in 2005, guarantees 100 days of wage employment per rural household per year.
    • Demand‑driven: rural families can register and request work at any time.
  • Rationale for Cap
    • Historically, 70 percent+ of the annual budget is spent by September, leading to pending dues of ₹15,000–25,000 crore at year‑end.
    • Cap ensures fund availability in the second half and reduces reliance on ad‑hoc supplementary allocations.
  • Financial Details
    • Budget for 2025–26: ₹86,000
    • Release by June 2025: 28 percent (≈₹24,080 crore).
    • Pending dues from 2024–25: ~₹19,200 crore (≈22 percent of current budget).
Consider the following statements regarding Cholera:
.1. It is caused by a virus that spreads via aerosol transmission.
2. Cholera can cause fatal dehydration within hours if untreated.
3. Boiling water and vaccination are key preventive strategies in high-risk areas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • (A) 1 and 2 only
  • (B) 2 and 3 only
  • (C) 1 and 3 only
  • (D) 1, 2 and 3
Show Answer

Answer: (b) 

Current Context : Recently, a cholera outbreak in Jajpur, Odisha, in June 2025 has resulted in 5 deaths and around 500 hospitalisations, prompting deployment of a 14‑member central medical team for containment.

 

About Cholera

  • Cause: Bacterium Vibrio cholerae, typically through contaminated water or food.
  • Symptoms: Profuse watery diarrhoea, vomiting, rapid dehydration; can be fatal within hours if untreated.
  • Transmission: Fecal‑oral route; even asymptomatic carriers can spread infection.
  • Preventive Measures:
    • Boiled/treated drinking water; chlorination of wells and hand‑pumps.
    • Health education on sanitation and hygiene.
    • Vaccination (where available) in high‑risk areas.
In ISSF World Cup 2025, which Indian pair won gold in the 10m Air Rifle Mixed Team event?
  • (A) Manu Bhaker and Saurabh Chaudhary
  • (B) Arjun Babuta and Arya Borse
  • (C) Abhinav Bindra and Anjali Bhagwat
  • (D) Divyansh Panwar and Elavenil Valarivan
Show Answer

Answer: (b)

Current Context : At the International Shooting Sport Federation World Cup in Munich 2025, Indian duo Arjun Babuta and Arya Borse won gold in the 10 m Air Rifle Mixed Team event, defeating China’s pair 17–7 in the final.

 

ABOUT ISSF WORLD CUP

  • Competition Cycle: Annual series of World Cups; top performers qualify for Olympic rankings.
  • Event Format (Mixed Team 10 m Air Rifle):
    • Teams of one male and one female shooter.
    • Qualification: 40 shots per team member; top two teams reach medal match.
    • Final: “Shoot‑off” format with scoring pairs against each other per series.
With reference to the Iran–Israel conflict, consider the following statements:
1. Iran’s withdrawal from the NPT could have implications for international nuclear safeguards.
2. The conflict has caused disruptions in maritime trade through the Strait of Hormuz.
3. India imports nearly half of its oil via the Strait of Malacca, making the region highly vulnerable.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • (A) 1 and 2 only
  • (B) 2 and 3 only
  • (C) 1 and 3 only
  • (D) 1, 2 and 3
Show Answer

Answer: (a) 

Current Context : Following Israel’s “Operation Rising Lion” targeting Iranian sites, Iran launched “Operation True Promise 3” in retaliation, escalating regional tensions.

 

ABOUT CONFLICT DYNAMICS

  • Historical Roots:
    • Post‑1979 Iranian Revolution: Iran adopts anti‑Israel stance; severed ties.
    • Proxy engagements: Iran backs groups such as Hezbollah (Lebanon) and Hamas (Gaza).
  • Nuclear Dimensions:
    • Israel cites 60 percent enriched uranium found by the IAEA as existential threat; Iran threatens NPT withdrawal.
  • Regional Implications:
    • Maritime Security: Disruptions in the Strait of Hormuz and Red Sea shipping lanes.
    • Energy Prices: Volatile crude oil markets; India imports ~80 percent of its oil via Hormuz.
    • Diplomatic Balancing: India’s strategic relations with both Iran (Chabahar Port) and Israel (defence cooperation).
Consider the following statements regarding Preventive Detention in India:
1. It is permitted under Article 22 of the Constitution with specific safeguards.
2. The Supreme Court in Dhanya M vs. State of Kerala upheld detention under the Kerala Anti-Social Activities Act.
Preventive detention can be imposed for ordinary law-and-order situations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • (A) 1 only
  • (B) 1 and 2 only
  • (C) 1 and 3 only
  • (D) 1, 2 and 3
Show Answer

Answer: (a)

Current Context : In Dhanya M vs. State of Kerala & Others (2025), the Supreme Court set aside preventive detention orders under the Kerala Anti‑Social Activities (Prevention) Act, 2007, clarifying “public order” versus “law and order.”

 

About Preventive Detention

  • Constitutional Provision: Article 22(3) allows preventive detention for public order or national security
  • Safeguards:
    • Initial detention ≤ 3 months; extension only with Advisory Board
    • Detainee must receive grounds for detention at earliest and opportunity to make representation.
  • Dhanya M Ruling:
    • Distinction: Law and order (ordinary offences) vs public order (wider threat to society).
    • Kerala Act misapplied for law‑and‑order situations; lacked requisite gravity for preventive detention.

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